2013年12月31日星期二

Pass4Test offre une formation sur Nortel 920-806 matériaux examen

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Code d'Examen: 920-806
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Nortel Advanced Data Networking Technology)
Questions et réponses: 58 Q&As

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NO.1 Line-of-sight is one of the boundaries of Radio Frequency (RF) waves. They are also affected by
obstacles that can cause the waves to bend, bounce, or become distorted.Which type of electromagnetic
wave is a radio wave?
A.direct wave
B.ground wave
C.space wave
D.fluid wave
Answer: A

Nortel   certification 920-806   920-806   920-806   920-806 examen

NO.2 A large retail store has decided to use a wireless network to attach cash registers and computers to the
network, so that they can rearrange the floor layout without having to pull network cable every time they
rearrange displays. The issue is that when they first tried to implement IEEE 802.11b last year, there was
too much interference from other WLANs and cordless telephones, and the computers received very poor
signal strength.Which change would most help fix this problem?
A.Use 802.11g to increase the number of channels available.
B.Use 802.11a on the 5GHz range with more channels.
C.Use 802.11b on a non-standard channel to keep from conflicting with the other WLANs.
D.Use 802.11b on the alternate 5GHz range with more channels.
Answer: B

Nortel examen   920-806 examen   920-806 examen   certification 920-806   920-806

NO.3 A customer would like to limit access to the research and development network to engineers and their
managers. These employees need the ability to login throughout the building on any PC and to access
the network remotely.Which solution will accomplish this?
A.machine-based authentication using RADIUS authentication
B.PC-based authentication using LDAP authentication
C.Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPoL) with TACACS+
D.policy-based user provisioning with Enterprise Policy Manager and RADIUS
Answer: D

certification Nortel   920-806   920-806 examen   920-806 examen   920-806 examen

NO.4 Click on the Exhibit button.
A customer is using PPP to communicate between two locations that are connected by a dial-up circuit.
They are having problems with the link and think that it is an issue with the CHAP authentication. They
have the ability to perform a packet capture on the circuit. They will create a filter looking at the protocol
field in the PPP header to reduce the volume of traffic they need to examine.
Which PPP protocol should they examine to see the CHAP authentication traffic during link setup?
A.Network Layer
B.Link Control Protocol (LCP)
C.Network Control Protocol (NCP)
D.Datalink Control Protocol (DCP)
Answer: B

Nortel examen   920-806 examen   certification 920-806   920-806 examen   920-806

NO.5 Click on the Exhibit button.
Using the exhibit, what do you call the measure of the amount of time the wave takes from the moment it
hits peak intensity to the moment it hits peak intensity again?
A.cycle
B.amplitude
C.frequency
D.wavelength
Answer: D

certification Nortel   920-806   920-806 examen   920-806 examen   920-806 examen

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Code d'Examen: 920-338
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 BCM200/400 Rls 4.0 and BCM450 Rls. 1.0 Instal Con)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 The Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50) expansion unit is designed to support
Media Bay Modules (MBMs). These modules are available in many configurations.
What is the maximum number of MBMs that the system can support?
A.one
B.two
C.four
D.six
Answer: B

Nortel   920-338 examen   certification 920-338   920-338

NO.2 On a company's default system, six buses of DS30 channel blocks are assigned to Media Bay Modules
(MBM) (2/6 channel split). The DS30 allocation needs to be changed to a 3/5 split to accommodate
increased IP telephony requirements.
How is this change accomplished?
A.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 6 to the system bus resource.
B.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 6 to the system bus resource through the MBM dip switches.
C.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 7 to the system bus resource.
D.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 7 to the system bus resource, although all telephony programming will
be defaulted.
Answer: C

certification Nortel   920-338   certification 920-338   920-338 examen

NO.3 You require a Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50) system with an Ethernet router.
Which main unit must you choose?
A.BCM50
B.BCM50a
C.BCM50b
D.BCM50e
Answer: D

certification Nortel   920-338 examen   920-338

NO.4 On a Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50), how do you program several special
features at once for CallPilot mailboxes?
A.Enable networking in the Class of Service.
B.Assign express messaging lines in mailbox properties.
C.Assign features by selecting a Class of Service.
D.Purchase additional authorization codes.
Answer: C

Nortel examen   920-338 examen   920-338

NO.5 You are configuring a BCM50 VoIP network using SIP trunks. You want to ensure callers from remote
systems are authorized to place calls to the local system.
How do you do this?
A.Enable Remote Authentication, and enter each DN to be verified in the Local Accounts table.
B.Enable Local Authentication, and enter User ID/Password combinations in the Local Accounts table.
C.Enable Remote Authentication, and enter User ID/Password combinations in the Local Accounts table.
D.Enable Local Authentication, and enter each DN to be verified in the Local Accounts table.
Answer: B

Nortel   certification 920-338   920-338

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Certification Nortel de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 922-104, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 922-104
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Rls.6.0 Upgrades for Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is upgrading a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.5 system to a Communication
Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 system in a geographically-distributed Survivable Media Gateway (SMG)
environment. They want to provide backup Terminal Proxy Server (TPS) services for users at the SMG
site in case of a WAN failure. Which component provides backup TPS services?
A.DSP Daughterboard
B.Local SMG Leader Signaling Server
C.Media Card 32-port (MC32)
D.Media Card 32-port S (MC32S)
Answer:B

Nortel   922-104 examen   922-104   922-104   certification 922-104

NO.2 A customer is migrating a Media Gateway (MG) 1000B Rls. 4.5 to a Communication Server (CS) 1000E
Rls. 6.0 Co-resident system. The current MG 1000B contains one Media Card. Which card(s) will
Enterprise Configurator (EC) provision to replace the SSC card?
A.CPPM Co-resident card and a MGC card
B.CPPM Co-resident card and a MGC card with 32-port daughterboard
C.CPPM Co-resident card and a MGC card with 96-port daughterboard
D.CPPM Co-resident card, a MGC card with 96-port daughterboard, and a 32-port daughterboard
Answer:D

Nortel examen   922-104 examen   922-104

NO.3 You are designing a Survivable Media Gateway geographic redundant solution including a
Communication Server 1000E HA Rls. 6.0 system with CPPM Call Servers. The customer requires the
use of the maximum number of supported media gateways. How many survivable media gateways can
participate in automated database duplication?
A.28
B.30
C.48
D.49
Answer:C

certification Nortel   certification 922-104   922-104

NO.4 A customer is upgrading an existing Communication Server (CS) 1000M with a CPPM Signaling Server
at Rls. 5.0 to a CS 1000M Rls. 6.0. What minimum modification must be made to the Signaling Server?
A.upgrade the Signaling Server software to Rls. 6.0
B.upgrade the Signaling Server memory to 2 GB
C.upgrade the memory to 2 GB and the Signaling Server software to Rls. 6.0
D.replace the CPPM Signaling Server with a new COTS Signaling Server
Answer:C

Nortel   certification 922-104   certification 922-104   922-104

NO.5 A customer recently upgraded to a Communication Server (CS) 1000E 6.0 HA with two CPPM Call
Server, seven CPPM Signaling Servers, five Geographically Redundant Survivable Media Gateways, and
6000 IP telephones. You decide to test the Triple Registration feature to ensure the system redundancy
feature works. Which registration flow for the Media Gateway Controller describes the Triple Redundancy
feature among the CS 1000 Rls. 6.0 hardware components?
A.Signaling Server> Primary Call Server> Alternate Call Server 1> Alternate Call Server 2.
B.Alternate Call Server 2> Alternate Call Server 1> Primary Call Server.
C.Primary Call Server> Alternate Call Server 1> Alternate Call Server 2.
D.Voice Gateway Media Card> Leader Signaling Server> Follower Signaling Server 1> Follower
Signaling Server 2.
Answer:C

Nortel   922-104   922-104   922-104   922-104   certification 922-104

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Network Appliance NS0-153 examen pratique questions et réponses

Le test Network Appliance NS0-153 est très important dans l'Industrie IT, tous les professionnels le connaîssent ce fait. D'ailleur, c'est difficile à réussir ce test, toutefois le test Network Appliance NS0-153 est une bonne façon à examiner les connaissances professionnelles. Un gens avec le Certificat Network Appliance NS0-153 sera apprécié par beaucoup d'entreprises. Pass4Test est un fournisseur très important parce que beaucoup de candidats qui ont déjà réussi le test preuvent que le produit de Pass4Test est effectif. Vous pouvez réussir 100% le test Network Appliance NS0-153 avec l'aide de Pass4Test.

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Code d'Examen: NS0-153
Nom d'Examen: Network Appliance (Network Appliance Storege Networking)
Questions et réponses: 184 Q&As

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NO.1 If you believe you have a FC SAN performance problem, which NetApp utility or command
would gather both your Solaris host and storage appliance data for analysis?
A.poststat
B.perfstat
C.prestat
D.sio_ntap.exe
Correct:B

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.2 To view per client NFS statistics on the storage appliance, options nfs.per_client_stats.enable
must be turned on.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.3 What is the definition of the cifs setup command?
A.It displays the mount point of all shared directories.
B.It displays the names of all mounted directories on the storage system.
C.It displays the prompts for CIFS configuration information.
D.It displays a list of the users on the storage system.
Correct:C

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.4 Using the output below, a co-worker determined that these are type "Solaris" LUNs. What would
your determination be? lun show -m LUN pathMapped to LUN ID
--------------------------------------------------- /vol/vol1/lun0 solaris-igroup0 0 /vol/vol1/lun1 solaris-igroup1
0 /vol/vol1/qtree1/lun2 solaris-igroup2 0 /vol/vol1/qtree1/lun3 solaris-igroup3 0
A.These are type "Solaris" LUNs.
B.These are NFS LUNs, but the exact OS cannot be determined.
C.Not enough information is given here. Run the lun show -v command to get the information requested.
D.Not enough information is given here. Run the lun map command to get the information requested.
Correct:C

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.5 What is the outcome of this command? lun create -b /vol/vol2/.snapshot/testsnap/lun0
/vol/vol2/lun0.clone
A.It creates a duplicate of the clone process of lun0.
B.It creates a clone of the writeable snapshot of lun0.
C.It creates a writeable snapshot of lun0.
D.It creates a snapshot "testsnap" of vol2.
Correct:C

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.6 To configure a storage system as a member of an active directory, the time on the storage
system must be synchronized with the time on the Domain Controller.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.7 Three methods of creating a LUN are: *lun setup *lun map *FilerView
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.8 Which three are used for creating LUNs on the storage appliance? (Choose 3)
A.lun create
B.lun setup
C.FilerView
D.lun config
Correct:A B C

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.9 UNIX allow file access based on __________.
A.GID or UID and UNIX permissions.
B.NT ACLs and UNIX permissions.
C.NT ACLs and SID.
D.GID or UID and ACLs.
Correct:A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.10 Which command would you use to verify that the iSCSI service is running?
A.license add iSCSI
B.iscsi service
C.iscsi status
D.iscsi protocol
Correct:C

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.11 If you change the setting for the option cifs.neg_buf_size, you need to terminate CIFS on the
storage appliance and do a restart for the changes to take effect.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.12 ____________ is the default cfmode for new installations of Data ONTAP 7.2.
A.single image
B.mixed
C.partner
D.dual fabric
Correct:A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.13 Which security method encrypts the data?
A.IPSec
B.CHAP
C.LUN masking
D.Header and Data Digests
Correct:A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.14 The writeable snapshot that is created for a LUN clone depends on ___________.
A.mirroring.
B.the snapshot taken at the time the clone was created.
C.exclusive access to the volume.
D.the data in the original LUN not changing.
Correct:B

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.15 If the client is a CIFS client, locks are __________.
A.advisory
B.mandatory
C.ordered
D.optional
Correct:B

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.16 Which command is the most appropriate for troubleshooting a multiprotocol authentication
problem?
A.wcc
B.rdfile /etc/rc
C.priv set advanced
D.sysstat 1
Correct:A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.17 Applications, such as databases, running on NAS or iSCSI or FC SAN must be
__________________.
A.prepared for snapshots by flushing buffers to disk and momentarily suspending activity.
B.disconnected from their storage resources during the snapshot.
C.using dynamic multipathing during a backup.
D.mirrored with a host-based volume manager to be backed-up.
Correct:A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.18 To export volumes and directories automatically on reboot, include them in the /etc/exports file.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.19 A quota target can be defined as _______________.
A.the maximum amount of disk space in a volume.
B.the maximum number of files in a disk.
C.a user, group, or qtree to which a quota is applied.
D.a specific disk space threshold.
Correct:C

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

NO.20 Which one of the following will enable "symlink_strict_security"?
A.options cifs.symlink_strict_security on
B.cifs shares -change -symlink_strict_security
C.options symlink_strict_security=true
D.options symlink_strict_security=on
Correct:B

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-153   NS0-153

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L'avènement de la certification Network Appliance pratique d'examen NS0-502 questions et réponses

Pass4Test vous promet de vous aider à passer le test Network Appliance NS0-502, vous pouvez télécharger maintenant les Q&As partielles de test Network Appliance NS0-502 en ligne. Il y a encore la mise à jour gratuite pendant un an pour vous. Si vous malheureusement rater le test, votre argent sera 100% rendu.

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Code d'Examen: NS0-502
Nom d'Examen: Network Appliance (NetApp Certified Implementation Engineer-SAN and Virtualization)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

NS0-502 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/NS0-502.html

NO.1 Any newly installed system with Data ONTAP 7.3.1 supports which cfmode?
A. dual_fabric only
B. single_image
C. partner
D. mixed
Answer: B

certification Network Appliance   NS0-502   NS0-502 examen

NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
In the diagram shown, a portset is created on controller 1 with the command: controller1>portset create -f
ntapportset 0b. This portset is bound to the igroup with all the initiators in it.
How many paths can host 1 see to a LUN on controller 1?
A. six paths
B. four paths
C. eight paths
D. two paths
Answer: D

Network Appliance   certification NS0-502   NS0-502

NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information provided in the diagram, what is the appropriate FC topology?
A. point-to-point
B. switched fabric
C. arbitrated loop
D. ring
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are three relevant perfstat counters to check for unaligned I/O that do not fall on the WAFL
boundary? (Choose three.)
A. wp.partial_write
B. vvol_read.io_valid
C. read/write_align_histo.XX
D. read/write_partial_blocks.XX
E. xinode content misses
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 Which FC SAN topology provides the best performance and scalability?
A. cascade
B. core-edge
C. full mesh
D. partial mesh
Answer: B

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NO.6 An organization currently has a NetApp Fibre Channel block-based solution. With limited budget and
resources, they want to create a new disaster recovery site that utilizes a NetApp solution.
What would the optimal solution include?
A. SnapMover and Fibre Channel at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
B. SnapMirror and iSCSI at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
C. Fibre Channel at both locations using ftp to replicate storage
D. MetroCluster and NAS
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three protocols can be used for communications between a host running SnapDrive for
Windows and the NetApp Storage Controllers? (Choose three.)
A. http:
B. https:
C. ftp:
D. RPC
E. ssh
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for a
Qlogic QLAxxx/QLExxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. cfgadmin
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer has a four-node SUN cluster configuration. Each node has two, dual-ported HBAs.
What is the minimum number of igroups that need to be created to map a LUN to the cluster?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the diagram shown, what is the appropriate FC switch topology?
A. full mesh
B. core-edge
C. full cascade
D. partial mesh
Answer: B

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the diagram shown, what is the appropriate FC switch topology?
A. core-edge
B. full mesh
C. partial mesh
D. partial cascade
Answer: C

Network Appliance   NS0-502   NS0-502   NS0-502   NS0-502

NO.12 Which utility on Windows 2003 and Windows 2008 can be used to collect information about firmware
and driver versions for an Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. fcp config
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E

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NO.13 Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for an
Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. hbainfo
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E

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NO.14 A 100-GB thinly provisioned LUN is allocated to a Windows host. 100 GB of data is written into the
LUN. The current capacity utilization on the disk array as well as the host is 100%. 50 GB of data is
deleted from the LUN. Space reclaimer has NOT been run.
What is the current capacity utilization on both the host and the disk array?
A. 50% on the host, 100% on the disk array
B. 100% on the host, 50% on the disk array
C. 50% on the host, 50% on the disk array
D. 100% on the host, 100% on the disk array
Answer: A

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NO.15 Zoning by World Wide Port Name (WWPN) is deployed and a host HBA is replaced.
Which zone change needs to be made?
A. No changes are necessary.
B. The zone configuration should be changed to include the port to which the HBA is connected.
C. The zone configuration should be changed to include the WWPN of the new HBA; the old WWPN will
be automatically dropped.
D. The zone configuration should be changed to include the WWPN of the new HBA and to remove the
WWPN of the old HBA.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit Button
The table highlights the space management policy that is defined for a particular flexvol, acmevol.
Based on the information provided in the table, which action will the storage controller take when it runs
out of space in the volume?
A. It will try deleting Snapshot copies first to reclaim space before trying to grow the volume.
B. It will grow the volume before deleting Snapshot copies.
C. It will only try deleting Snapshot copies to reclaim space and will not grow the volume.
D. It is irrelevant since fractional_reserve is 0%.
Answer: C

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NO.17 A 200-GB LUN is created in an empty 500-GB volume with the volume guarantee option set to Volume.
LUN reservation is enabled and the fractional reserve is set to 100 and scheduled snapshots are
disabled.
Directly after LUN creation, what is the maximum free space available in the volume?
A. 200 GB
B. 300 GB
C. 400 GB
D. 500 GB
Answer: B

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
You see the following error on the storage controller's console or messages file.
What is the most likely cause for this error?
A. portal group misconfiguration
B. iSCSI CHAP misconfiguration
C. iSNS misconfiguration
D. IPsec misconfiguration
Answer: B

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NO.19 What would you use to share a data LUN among multiple servers where each server has simultaneous
write access?
A. host-based BootBIOS
B. host-based multipathing
C. host-based volume manager
D. host-based clustered file system
Answer: D

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NO.20 A company has a Fibre Channel environment and wants to connect a new host in a remote data
center using 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable and needs to support 2 Gb speeds.
What is the maximum distance of the cable run supported in this situation?
A. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 500 meters at 2 Gb.
B. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 10000 meters at 2 Gb.
C. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 150 meters at 2 Gb.
D. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 300 meters at 2 Gb.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: NS0-155
Nom d'Examen: Network Appliance (NetApp Certified 7-Mode Data Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 189 Q&As

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NO.1 Is NetApp storage Encryption supported in Data ONTAP 8.1.1 Cluster-Mode?
A. No, but you can file a PVR to request support.
B. No. it is targeted for a future release of Data ONATP .
C. Yes, only with a special license installed.
D. Yes, it has been supported since 8.0.1.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which Data ONTAP option sets system-wide throttling for all transfers?
A. options transfer.wide.enable
B. options transfer.throttle.enable
C. options replication.wide.enable
D. options replication.throttle.enable
Answer: D

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NO.3 How does the NetApp Remote Agent (RSA) connect to NetApp Support?
A. NetApp Support initiates a non-secure connection to the RSA.
B. NetApp Support initiates a secure connection to the RSA.
C. The RSA initiates a secure connection to NetApp Support.
D. The RSA initiates a non-secure connection to NetApp support.
Answer: C

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NO.4 To collect per client NFS statistics on a storage system, the option nfs.per_client_stats.enable
must be set on.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 You can avoid data corruption when you issue the cf forcetakeover -d command if the remote
node is ________.
A. in a giveback mode
B. fenced off manually
C. powered on and accessible
D. powered off and inaccessible
Answer: D

Network Appliance   NS0-155   NS0-155 examen   NS0-155

NO.6 When using a Protection Manager policy to manage Open Systems SnapVault backups on a
UNIX
server, which three are valid objects to include in the data set? (Choose three.)
A. A file
B. A qtree
C. A directory
D. Theentire client
Answer: A,C,D

Network Appliance   NS0-155   NS0-155   NS0-155   NS0-155 examen

NO.7 Which three statements are true about SnapLock volumes? (Choose three.)
A. SnapMirror supports SnapLock volumes.
B. There are two types of SnapLock volumes.
C. SnapLock volumes support per-file retention periods.
D. In Data ONTAP 7.2.5.1 and later, SnapLock Compliance volumes are not supported on the VSeries
controller with NetApp Storage.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Data ONTAP uses inodes in an active file system to reference ___________.
A. qtrees
B. disk blocks
C. file segments
D. Snapshot copies
Answer: B

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NO.9 What security mechanism can an administrator use on an OSSV client to set permissions
allowing
backups to a SnapVault secondary system?
A. Via /etc/hosts.equiv file
B. QSM access list modifiable via svconfigurator
C. Contents inside a file called access and located in OSSV /snapvault/etc
D. MD5 based authentication between SnapVault primary and secondary, with changeable
password
Answer: B

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NO.10 There are three phases of Non Disruptive Volume Movement (NDVM). What is the correct
sequence of these phases?
A. Setup Phase, Mirror Phase, Cutover Phase
B. Initialization phase, Copy Phase, Migrate Phase
C. Begin Phase, Move Phase, Complete Phase
D. Setup Phase, Data Copy Phase, Cutover Phase
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 70-640
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Windows Server 2008 Active Directory. Configuring)
Questions et réponses: 575 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are
configured as DNS servers. The domain contains one Active Directory-integrated DNS zone. You need to
ensure that outdated DNS records are automatically removed from the DNS zone.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of the zone, modify the TTL of the SOA record.
B. From the properties of the zone, enable scavenging.
C. From the command prompt, run ipconfig /flushdns.
D. From the properties of the zone, disable dynamic updates.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have two servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1
is configured as an enterprise root certification authority (CA). You install the Online Responder role
service on Server2. You need to configure Server1 to support the Online Responder. What should you
do?
A. Import the enterprise root CA certificate.
B. Configure the Certificate Revocation List Distribution Point extension.
C. Configure the Authority Information Access (AIA) extension.
D. Add the Server2 computer account to the CertPublishers group.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server
2008 R2. You need to reset the Directory Services Restore Mode (DSRM) password on a domain
controller.
What tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in
B. ntdsutil
C. Local Users and Groups snap-in
D. dsmod
Answer: B

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NO.4 Contoso, Ltd. has an Active Directory domain named ad.contoso.com. Fabrikam, Inc. has an Active
Directory domain named intranet.fabrikam.com. Fabrikam's security policy prohibits the transfer of
internal DNS zone data outside the Fabrikam network. You need to ensure that the Contoso users are
able to resolve names from the intranet.fabrikam.com domain.
What should you do?
A. Create a new stub zone for the intranet.fabrikam.com domain.
B. Configure conditional forwarding for the intranet.fabrikam.com domain.
C. Create a standard secondary zone for the intranet.fabrikam.com domain.
D. Create an Active DirectoryCintegrated zone for the intranet.fabrikam.com domain.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your company has an Active Directory domain. A user attempts to log on to a computer that was turned
off for twelve weeks. The administrator receives an error message that authentication has failed. You
need to ensure that the user is able to log on to the computer. What should you do?
A. Run the netsh command with the set and machine options.
B. Reset the computer account. Disjoin the computer from the domain, and then rejoin the computer to
the domain.
C. Run the netdom TRUST /reset command.
D. Run the Active Directory Users and Computers console to disable, and then enable the computer
account.
Answer: B

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NO.6 An Active Directory database is installed on the C volume of a domain controller. You need to move the
Active Directory database to a new volume. What should you do?
A. Copy the ntds.dit file to the new volume by using the ROBOCOPY command.
B. Move the ntds.dit file to the new volume by using Windows Explorer.
C. Move the ntds.dit file to the new volume by running the Move-item command in Microsoft Windows
PowerShell.
D. Move the ntds.dit file to the new volume by using the Files option in the Ntdsutil utility.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your company has file servers located in an organizational unit named Payroll. The file servers contain
payroll files located in a folder named Payroll. You create a GPO. You need to track which employees
access the Payroll files on the file servers. What should you do?
A. Enable the Audit process tracking option. Link the GPO to the Domain Controllers organizational unit.
On the file servers, configure Auditing for the Authenticated Users group in the Payroll folder.
B. Enable the Audit object access option. Link the GPO to the Payroll organizational unit. On the file
servers, configure Auditing for the Everyone group in the Payroll folder.
C. Enable the Audit process tracking option. Link the GPO to the Payroll organizational unit. On the file
servers, configure Auditing for the Everyone group in the Payroll folder.
D. Enable the Audit object access option. Link the GPO to the domain. On the domain controllers,
configure Auditing for the Authenticated Users group in the Payroll folder.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your company has an Active Directory forest that contains a single domain. The domain member
server has an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) role installed. You need to configure AD FS to
ensure that AD FS tokens contain information from the Active Directory domain. What should you do?
A. Add and configure a new account partner.
B. Add and configure a new resource partner.
C. Add and configure a new account store.
D. Add and configure a Claims-aware application.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your company has an Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2. Your company
uses an Enterprise Root certificate authority (CA). You need to ensure that revoked certificate information
is highly available. What should you do?
A. Implement an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) responder by using an Internet Security and
Acceleration Server array.
B. Publish the trusted certificate authorities list to the domain by using a Group Policy Object (GPO).
C. Implement an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) responder by using Network Load Balancing.
D. Create a new Group Policy Object (GPO) that allows users to trust peer certificates. Link the GPO to
the domain.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your network consists of an Active Directory forest that contains one domain named contoso.com. All
domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are configured as DNS servers. You have two
Active Directory-integrated zones: contoso.com and nwtraders.com. You need to ensure a user is able to
modify records in the contoso.com zone. You must prevent the user from modifying the SOA record in the
nwtraders.com zone. What should you do?
A. From the Active Directory Users and Computers console, run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
B. From the Active Directory Users and Computers console, modify the permissions of the Domain
Controllers organizational unit (OU).
C. From the DNS Manager console, modify the permissions of the contoso.com zone.
D. From the DNS Manager console, modify the permissions of the nwtraders.com zone.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are decommissioning domain controllers that hold all forest-wide operations master roles. You
need to transfer all forest-wide operations master roles to another domain controller. Which two roles
should you transfer? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Domain naming master
B. Infrastructure master
C. RID master
D. PDC emulator
E. Schema master
Answer: AE

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NO.12 Your company has an Active Directory domain. The company has two domain controllers named DC1
and DC2. DC1 holds the Schema Master role.
DC1 fails. You log on to Active Directory by using the administrator account. You are not able to transfer
the Schema Master operations role.
You need to ensure that DC2 holds the Schema Master role.
What should you do?
A. Configure DC2 as a bridgehead server.
B. On DC2, seize the Schema Master role.
C. Log off and log on again to Active Directory by using an account that is a member of the Schema
Administrators group. Start the Active Directory Schema snap-in.
D. Register the Schmmgmt.dll. Start the Active Directory Schema snap-in.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Your company, Contoso Ltd has a main office and a branch office. The offices are connected by a WAN
link. Contoso has an Active Directory forest that contains a single domain named ad.contoso.com.
The ad.contoso.com domain contains one domain controller named DC1 that is located in the main office.
DC1 is configured as a DNS server for the ad.contoso.com DNS zone. This zone is configured as a
standard primary zone.
You install a new domain controller named DC2 in the branch office. You install DNS on DC2.
You need to ensure that the DNS service can update records and resolve DNS queries in the event that a
WAN link fails.
What should you do?
A. Create a new stub zone named ad.contoso.com on DC2.
B. Create a new standard secondary zone named ad.contoso.com on DC2.
C. Configure the DNS server on DC2 to forward requests to DC1.
D. Convert the ad.contoso.com zone on DC1 to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Your company has a main office and a branch office. You deploy a read-only domain controller (RODC)
that runs Microsoft Windows Server 2008 to the branch office. You need to ensure that users at the
branch office are able to log on to the domain by using the RODC. What should you do?
A. Add another RODC to the branch office.
B. Configure a new bridgehead server in the main office.
C. Decrease the replication interval for all connection objects by using the Active Directory Sites and
Services console.
D. Configure the Password Replication Policy on the RODC. Answer: D

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NO.15 Your company uses a Windows 2008 Enterprise certificate authority (CA) to issue certificates. You
need to implement key archival. What should you do?
A. Configure the certificate for automatic enrollment for the computers that store encrypted files.
B. Install an Enterprise Subordinate CA and issue a user certificate to users of the encrypted files.
C. Apply the Hisecdc security template to the domain controllers.
D. Archive the private key on the server.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Your company has a single Active Directory domain named intranet.adatum.com. The domain
controllers run Windows Server 2008 and the DNS server role. All computers, including non-domain
members, dynamically register their DNS records. You need to configure the intranet.adatum.com zone to
allow only domain members to dynamically register DNS records.
What should you do?
A. Set dynamic updates to Secure Only.
B. Remove the Authenticated Users group.
C. Enable zone transfers to Name Servers.
D. Deny the Everyone group the Create All Child Objects permission.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Your company has a server that runs an instance of Active Directory Lightweight Directory Service (AD
LDS). You need to create new organizational units in the AD LDS application directory partition. What
should you do?
A. Use the dsmod OU <OrganizationalUnitDN> command to create the organizational units.
B. Use the Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in to create the organizational units on the AD
LDS application directory partition.
C. Use the dsadd OU <OrganizationalUnitDN> command to create the organizational units.
D. Use the ADSI Edit snap-in to create the organizational units on the AD LDS application directory
partition.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Your company has an Active Directory forest that runs at the functional level of Windows Server 2008.
You implement Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS).
You install Microsoft SQL Server 2005. When you attempt to open the AD RMS administration Web site,
you receive the following error message: "SQL Server does not exist or access denied."
You need to open the AD RMS administration Web site.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Restart IIS.
B. Manually delete the Service Connection Point in AD DS and restart AD RMS.
C. Install Message Queuing.
D. Start the MSSQLSVC service.
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server
2008 R2. The Audit account management policy setting and Audit directory services access setting are
enabled for the entire domain. You need to ensure that changes made to Active Directory objects can be
logged. The logged changes must include the old and new values of any attributes.
What should you do.?
A. Run auditpol.exe and then configure the Security settings of the Domain Controllers OU.
B. From the Default Domain Controllers policy, enable the Audit directory service access setting and
enable directory service changes.
C. Enable the Audit account management policy in the Default Domain Controller Policy.
D. Run auditpol.exe and then enable the Audit directory service access setting in the Default Domain
policy.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server
2008 R2 and are configured as DNS servers. A domain controller named DC1 has a standard primary
zone for contoso.com. A domain controller named DC2 has a standard secondary zone for contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the replication of the contoso.com zone is encrypted. You must not lose any zone
data. What should you do?
A. Convert the primary zone into an Active Directory-integrated stub zone. Delete the secondary zone.
B. Convert the primary zone into an Active Directory-integrated zone. Delete the secondary zone.
C. Configure the zone transfer settings of the standard primary zone. Modify the Master Servers lists on
the secondary zone.
D. On both servers, modify the interface that the DNS server listens on.
Answer: B

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Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (AX 2009 Project Series)
Questions et réponses: 89 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following describes why cost templates are used?
A.To define which categories to include in the calculation of a completion percentage
B.To define the ledger integration of a completion percentage
C.To set the mark-up percentage on different category groups
D.To divide the WIP transactions in General ledger
Answer: a

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NO.2 What is the difference between the Consumed and Finished Item methods for charging production
costs to a project?
A.The consumed method will post item transactions to the project as the production order is ended, while
the Finished Item method will not post any transactions to the project until the project is invoiced.
B.The consumed method will post hour, expense and item transactions to the project as they are
consumed on the production order, while the Finished Item method will post item transactions to the
project as the production order is report as finished.
C.The consumed method will only post raw material consumption costs to the project as they are
consumed on the production order, while the Finished Item method will post the labor and machine costs
to the project in addition to the raw material consumption cost.
D.There is no difference between the two methods in how they charge production costs. The two methods
determine how the production order will be scheduled.
Answer: b

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NO.3 A fixed-price installation project exists between your company and a customer. During the project the
customer requests that you provide additional spare parts. The purchase of these spare parts falls outside
the scope of the original project and you must charge the customer for these items. Which of the following
describes how to create a sales order with which to invoice the customer for the extra items?
A.You can do this anyway, regardless of the project structure and related types
B.Only on a child project of the type time and material
C.This is impossible, you cannot create a sales order for a fixed-price project
D.You can create a sales order from the fixed price project however you must ensure that the line property
for the order lines is chargeable.
Answer: b

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NO.4 Cost Templates are used in which of the following projects?
A.Summary projects
B.Time and material projects
C.Fixed-price projects
D.Internal Cost projects
Answer: c

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the Employee/category validation setup?
A.To apply validation rules on categories for a purchase requisition issued from the employee
B.To prevent an employee from reporting on non-authorized categories on a given project
C.To suggest or control what categories employees may use in project journals
D.To specify the categories where revenue can be accrued when you run the Post revenue script
Answer: c

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Code d'Examen: MB6-818
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (AX 2009 Financials)
Questions et réponses: 202 Q&As

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NO.1 How is the exchange rate for the default currency set up to specify the equivalent of 100 units of the
foreign currency?
A.Specify the Express exchange rate as 100 in the General ledger parameters form.
B.Specify the Express exchange rate as 1*100 in the General ledger parameters form.
C.Specify the Express exchange rate as 100 against each foreign currency in the Exchange rates form.
D.The exchange rate for the default currency can be specified only with the equivalent of one unit of the
foreign currency.
Answer: A

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NO.2 At what specific day intervals, can a payment day be specified on the Payment day form in Microsoft
Dynamics AX 2009?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Week
B.Month
C.Quarter
D.Year
Answer: AB

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NO.3 What is the purpose of Balance control accounts in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.To monitor the balance after a journal is posted.
B.To monitor only the current balance of an account as transactions are entered in a journal.
C.To monitor only the expected balance of an account as transactions are entered in a journal.
D.To monitor both the current balance and expected balance of an account as transactions are entered in
a journal.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How many Customer groups must be set up in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009 to create customer
records?
A.Zero
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Cash-Discount Administration in the Accounts Payable Parameters form is set to Unspecific. The
Accountant of Contoso managing Accounts Payable updates a vendor Invoice for USD 105 with an
obtainable cash discount of USD 10.50. Considering the cash discount, a payment of USD 94.50 must be
made to the vendor. The invoice was settled for USD 95 on the due date. To which account is the
difference of USD 0.50 posted in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Vendors cash discount account.
B.Ledger account specified for cash discount differences.
C.Error account along with the vendors cash discount account.
D.Ledger account specified for penny differences for a cash discount.
Answer: B

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NO.6 The Accountant of Contoso wants to set up new terms of payment for a vendor that the company is
making late payments to currently. As per the vendor request, the payments now must be made within 10
days. What Payment method must be specified in the Terms of payment form to achieve this in Microsoft
Dynamics AX 2009?
A.COD
B.Net
C.Gross
D.Total
Answer: B

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NO.7 Contoso acquires a new fixed asset during January of this year and the To date for the depreciation
was set to December 31, 2008. The Controller notices that there is no depreciation posted since July 1,
2008 and instructs the Accountant to post the amounts for all depreciations from July through December
in a single journal line, where the date is set to December 31, 2008 on the proposed journal lines. Which
feature in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009, helps the Accountant to achieve this?
A.Summarize depreciation
B.Depreciation convention
C.Derogatory depreciation
D.Extraordinary depreciation
Answer: A

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NO.8 Sales tax group can be attached to which of the following options in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
Choose the 3 that apply.
A.Company
B.Customers/Vendors
C.Ledger accounts
D.Ledger budget
Answer: BCD

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NO.9 What are the row type options available to create a row structure in the Structure designer form in
Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Element
B.Total
C.Group Total
D.Calculation
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Contoso has a standard vendor payment term of Net 30 days. If an order with a Net 30 days payment
terms is received on August 15, and the invoice is dated September 15; what is the due date for the
invoice in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.July 15
B.August 15
C.September 15
D.October 15
Answer: D

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NO.11 The Accounting Manager of Contoso instructs the Accounts Receivables Administrator not to allow
manual updates for settlement through the open edit transactions option. What must be set up in
Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009 to achieve automatic updates of settlement with an invoice?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Enable the Automatic settlement option in the Accounts receivables parameters form.
B.Enable the settlement option in the Posting profiles form for customers.
C.Clear the Automatic settlement check box in the General ledger parameters form.
D.Clear the Automatic settlement check box in the Posting profiles form for customers.
Answer: AB

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NO.12 What ledger accounts must be specified in the Exchange rates form to track the currency profit and
losses when the exchange adjustment is run in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Realized loss and profit
B.Unrealized loss and profit
C.Simulation loss and profit
D.Exchange adjustment loss and profit
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the maximum number of slip copies that can be printed for checks in Microsoft Dynamics AX
2009?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B

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NO.14 Contoso Entertainment Europe (CEE) is the subsidiary of Contoso Entertainment US (CEU).The
Consolidated company does not have any chart of accounts and the subsidiary chart of accounts is being
used in the consolidated company. Which of the following statements are true when this consolidation is
performed in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.The Current field must not be selected during the consolidation process.
B.The Consolidation account field must be selected during the consolidation process.
C.The Consolidation account field must not be selected during the consolidation process.
D.Enter the consolidation account field in the Chart of accounts of the Subsidiary company.
Answer: C

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NO.15 The Financial Controller of Contoso decides to restrict the accounts to use in a specific journal. What
setup is used to achieve this in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Transaction control
B.Posting restrictions
C.Journal control
D.Ledger accounts control
Answer: C

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NO.16 The tax authority imposes special duties on an item. The duty amounts are added to the net amount
before the Sales tax is calculated. Which of the following options of origin must be set up in Microsoft
Dynamics AX 2009 to calculate the Sales tax?
A.Percentage of net amount
B.Percentage of gross amount
C.Percentage of Sales tax
D.Amount per unit
Answer: B

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NO.17 What must be defined in the Bank Parameters form to manage Non-Sufficient Funds in Microsoft
Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Bank groups
B.Bank transaction groups
C.Bank transaction type
D.Bank accounts
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which option must be selected for the Period in the Methods of payment form to combine all invoices
for customers with the same payment?
A.Invoice
B.Date
C.Week
D.Total
Answer: D

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NO.19 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009, what needs to be set up to view ledger balances in different
currencies, other than the default currency of the company?
A.Set up the other currency for conversion on the Currency convertor tab in the Exchange rates form.
B.Set the Validate currency code to the List option and specify currencies for all ledger accounts in the
Chart of accounts form.
C.Change the default currency to any other currency in the Company information form.
D.It is not possible to view balances in other currencies in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009.
Answer: A

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NO.20 What ledger accounts must be set up to capture the cash receipts and disbursements for cash flow
forecasting in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Liquidity accounts
B.Dependent ledger accounts
C.Total accounts
D.Customer and vendor accounts
Answer: AB

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NO.21 From which of the following forms in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009 do the values, if defined, flow in the
fields, Routing number, Days, Suffix, Drawer, Validate bank accounts, and Post account in the Bank
accounts form?
A.Bank group
B.Chart of accounts
C.Bank transaction type
D.Bank transaction groups
Answer: A

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NO.22 The Controller decides to give cash discounts to his domestic customer group. A cash discount of 10%
if paid within 5 days from the date of invoice, 5% if paid within 10 days, and 2% if paid within 14 days is
given; how can this scenario be achieved in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.For the 14 days 2% code, the 10 days 5% code is selected in the Next discount code list. For the 10
days 5% code, the 5 days 10% code is selected in the Next discount code.
B.For the 10 days 5% code, the 14 days 2% code is selected in the Next discount code list. For the 10
days 5% code, the 5 days 10% code is selected in the Next discount code.
C.For the 5 days 10% code, the 14 days 2% code is selected in the Next Discount Code list. For the 10
days 5% code, the 10 days 5% code is selected in the Next discount code.
D.For the 5 days 10% code, the 10 days 5% code is selected in the Next discount code list. For the 10
days 5% code, the 14 days 2% code is selected in the Next discount code.
Answer: D

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NO.23 The voucher templates in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009 can be used with which of the following
journals?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.General journal
B.Fixed asset journal
C.Purchase journal
D.Accounts payable invoice journal
Answer: AD

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NO.24 Which calculation methods are available for defining the Payment Fee in Microsoft Dynamics AX
2009?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Interval
B.Period/Value
C.Amount
D.Percent
Answer: CD

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NO.25 The Controller wants to approve a daily journal posted by a newly appointed accountant. What setup
is required in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009 to approve daily journals?
A.Select the Active option and assign a user group to the journal in the Journal names form.
B.Select the Active option for the user to approve the transactions in the User form for automatic approval
of the journal.
C.Set permissions at the security level for each module for approval.
D.Approval of transactions cannot be set in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009.
Answer: A

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NO.26 The Controller wants to have a bank transaction type which will be mandatory when the vendor
invoices are paid by check. What setup must be made in the Methods of Payment form to achieve this in
Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Specify the Bank transaction type in the Methods of payment form.
B.Select the Bank transaction type mandatory check box in the Methods of payment form.
C.Select Bank transaction type is mandatory in the bank accounts form.
D.Specify the Bank transaction type compulsorily and post a vendor payment journal.
Answer: B

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NO.27 What functionality is used to enter and reuse specific transaction identification when a record is
updated in journals?
A.Transaction history
B.Identification text
C.Voucher numbers
D.Transaction texts
Answer: D

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NO.28 Contoso has a compensation policy which guarantees its customers a reimbursement of 10% of the
invoice amount in case of product damage and the minimum refund is set to 5%. The customer,
Adventure Inc. makes a purchase of USD 10,000, where more than 50% of the goods are damaged. As
the reimbursement amount is greater than the minimum refund, where is the balance amount that is
payable to the customer, transferred in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Vendor account
B.Customer account
C.Expense account
D.Profit and loss account
Answer: A

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NO.29 The Accountant wants to specify a check number manually when generating a payment. What setup
is required for the check number in the Check layout form in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Variable
B.Fixed
C.Free
D.Original
Answer: C

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NO.30 The Controller of Contoso decides to have a validation of dimensions for all the administrative
expense accounts. When a transaction is updated, it verifies that the dimension value entered in the
transaction matches the value specified in the ledger accounts. Which dimension validation is specified
for administrative expense accounts?
A.Fixed
B.Table
C.Default
D.To be filled in
Answer: B

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