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Code d'Examen: A4040-120
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Associate: IBM i 7.1 Administration)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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NO.1 User HOK tries to login and received the message "User profile cannot sign on." What
is the most likely
cause for the error?
A. The user's profile has been deleted.
B. The user's profile has been disabled.
C. The OMAXSIGN system value is set to 1.
D. The OMAXSGNACN system value is set to 1
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator plans to use a single LPAR and Management Central to manage
PTFs for other
systems in the enterprise. What is the most important consideration when deciding the
baseline.?
A. All systems are the same OS level.
B. All systems are at the same PTFGRP level
C. All systems are at the same test fix level.
D. All systems are at the same Cumulative level
Answer: A

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NO.3 Programmers are having issues with the RPG compiler, and it has been determined
that a fix must be
ordered. Which type of PTF is most appropriate?
A. Fix groups
B. Service packs
C. Individual fixes
D. Cumulative PTF packages
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of System Managed Access Path Protection (SMAPP)?
A. To prevent excessive I/O queuing when updating access paths
B. To automatically save file access data for security auditing
C. To improve application run time by providing ¯ sho rt cu
to data
D. To reduce recovery time by journaling changes in access path size and location
Answer: B

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NO.5 IBM i provides the capability to use digital certificates to sign objects. What objects,
other than
Programs (*PGM). Service programs (*SRVPGM) and Modules (*MODULE) may be signed?
A. Libraries(*LIB)
SQL Packages (*SQLPKG)
B. Query definitions (*QRYDFN)
Journals (*JRN)
C. Populated save files (*FILE SAVF)
Commands (*CMD)
D. Message queues (*MSGQ)
Populated data Queues (*DTAQ)
E. Physical files (*FILE PF-DTA)
User Profiles (*USRPRF)
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C2090-611
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 10.1 DBA for Linux, UNIX, and Windows)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 Where are column mask definitions stored?
A. In the table definition
B. In the system catalog
C. In the table space metadata
D. In the database configuration file
Answer: B

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NO.2 If a single node database is actively being used by applications when a power failure occurs, what
method is used to bring the database back to a consistent state once power has been restored.?
A. Crash recovery
B. Version recovery
C. Disaster recovery
D. Roll-forward recovery
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two types of security label components that can be used with Label-Based Access Control
(LBAC)? (Choose two).
A. Set
B. Tree
C. Group
D. Range
E. Hierarchy
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which command can be used to restore a corrupted database using only the recovery history file?
A. RESTART DATABASE
B. RECOVER DATABASE
C. RESTORE DATABASE
D. ROLLFORWARD DATABASE
Answer: B

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NO.5 What unit of measurement is used to represent the cumulative total cost of a node in a Visual Explain
access plan diagram?
A. CPU cycles
B. Elapsed time, in milliseconds
C. Processing instructions performed
D. Timerons
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is correct when describing trusted contexts?
A. A trusted context defines a trust relationship for a connection between the database and an external
entity.
B. A trusted context promotes the authorization level of the connection initiator and grants them DBADM
authority.
C. A trusted context defines a trust relationship between a user and a table allowing that user additional
capabilities.
D. A trusted context gives the database connection the ability to bypass auditing since authentication has
already occurred.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the MAX_LOG database configuration parameter used for?
A. To limit how many log files a single transaction can span.
B. To limit the percentage of primary log space a running transaction can consume.
C. To limit the total number of primary and secondary log files a database can consume.
D. To limit the total number of secondary log files a transaction can consume before infinite logging is
enabled.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A table named SALES was created as follows:
If management wants to use Label-Based Access Control (LBAC) to protect individual rows in the SALES
table, and the security policy needed (SEC_POLICY) has already been created, what must be done to
protect the table as desired?
A. Associate the SEC_POLICY security policy with the SALES table.
B. Add a column with the DB2SECURITYLABEL data type to the SALES table.
C. Add a column with the DB2SECURITYLABEL data type to the SALES table and then associate the
SEC_POLICY security policy with the table.
D. Add a SECURED WITH clause to every column in the SALES table and then associate the
SEC_POLICY security policy with the SALES table.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The values of the automatic maintenance database configuration parameters for a database named
SAMPLE are as follows:
What commands must be run to enable real-time statistics collection on the SAMPLE database?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample
USING AUTO_STMT_STATS ON;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample
USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_STMT_STATS ON;
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample
USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_STATS_VIEWS ON; D.
UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING
AUTO_STATS_VIEWS ON;
Answer: B

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NO.10 In IBM Data Studio, where can you schedule script-based jobs?
A. Job Console
B. Job Manager
C. Task Manager
D. Utilities Console
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have an High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR) environment set up and you want to read
from the standby database. What must you do?
A. Assign the value ON to the DB2_HADR_ROS registry variable.
B. Assign the value ON to the DB2_HADR_SNAP registry variable.
C. Execute the STOP HADR command to temporarily break the HADR connection to the standby.
D. Execute the TAKEOVER HADR command to instruct the standby database to takeover as the new
primary database.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the correct procedure for recovering a dropped table when DROPPED TABLE RECOVERY has
been enabled and the database must remain online?
A. Run the RECOVER DATABASE command with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the
database and recover the droppedtable.
B. Run the RECOVER DATABASE command with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the
appropriate table space and recover thedropped table.
C. Restore the database from a backup image that was taken before the table was dropped; run the
ROLLFORWARD DATABASE command withthe RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the
database and recover the dropped table.
D. Restore the appropriate table space from a backup image that was taken before the table was dropped;
run the ROLLFORWARD DATABASEcommand with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore
the appropriate table space and recover the dropped table.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which command will define the alternate diagnostic data directory path as /db2data/db2dump2?
A. db2set ALT_DIAGPATH=/db2data/db2dump2
B. db2set SECONDARY_DIAGPATH=/db2data/db2dump2
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING ALT_DIAGPATH /db2data/db2dump2
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING SECONDARY_DIAGPATH /db2data/db2dump2
Answer: C

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NO.14 If the current value for self-tuning memory is: Self Tuning Memory (SELF_TUNING_MEM) = ON
(Inactive) Which statement is true?
A. Self-tuning is occurring only on the instance memory area.
B. The memory tuner is actively tuning the memory on the system.
C. Self-tuning is not occurring because it is waiting for the database to be recycled.
D. Self-tuning is not occurring because there are less than two memory consumers enabled.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Due to a hardware failure, it appears that there may be some corruption in database DB_1 as DB2 is
reporting a "bad page". DB2DART is performed for the entire database and it appears that several bad
pages were detected in table space TBSP_1.
What command can be used to recover the database and repair the corruption in table space TBSP_1?
A. RESTART DATABASE
B. RECOVER DATABASE
C. RESTORE TABLESPACE
D. ROLLFORWARD DATABASE
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2150-575
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the default file name of the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator log?
A. tdi.log
B. ibmdi.log
C. ibmdisrv.log
D. ibmdirectoryintegrator.log
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does SAML stand for?
A. System Access Markup Language
B. Security Assertion Markup Language
C. Server Authenticated Markup Language
D. Secure Authentication Markup Language
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 configured as an OpenID provider, what is a
correct statement regarding processing of attributes when using an IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
AssemblyLine as a mapping function?
A. Only requested attributes can be returned.
B. All attributes requested must be BASE64 encoded to ensure proper handling.
C. The AssemblyLine must assure that values for non-optional attributes are returned.
D. Requested attributes that have an empty value (not an empty string) must be removed and cannot be
returned.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is always required when creating an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) Single
Sign-On federation partner?
A. A signer certificate
B. A login protocol endpoint
C. A metadata file containing the partner definitions
D. A federation default or partner-specific mapping rule or function
Answer: D

IBM   certification C2150-575   C2150-575

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true regarding this SAML 1.1 flow diagram.? (Choose three.)
A. The HTTP request in Step 3 is a GET.
B. The assertion is sent with an HTTP 200 response in Step 2.
C. An artifact value is sent with an HTTP 302 response in Step 2.
D. This is a Browser/POST profile, so in Step 3 the assertion is sent to the Assertion Consumer Service
endpoint through an HTTP POST of an HTML form.
E. The HTTP response in Step 5 must be a 302 redirect based upon the resource requested and the
user's authorized access which is determined by the response in Step 4.
F. This is a Browser/Artifact profile, so the artifact received in Step 2 must be sent to the Artifact
Resolution Service in Step 3, and the assertion must be retrieved through a SOAP backchannel in Step 4.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.6 A customer uses WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM) where IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) is configured to support Federal Information Processing
Standards (FIPS). When running the tfimcfg.jar tool this error is received:
FBTTAC1161 The SSL handshake failed. Retrying connection with certificate validation disabled
What must be done?
A. TFIM must be configured for SSL communication.
B. FIPS must be enabled on all TFIM WebSphere servers.
C. The TAM public certificates must be imported to the WebSphere trust store.
D. The tfimcfg.jar tool needs to run with the-sslfactory TLS argument.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which HTTP status code is always issued by an identity provider using SAML 1.1 Browser/POST when
communicating with the Assertion Consumer Service?
A. 101
B. 200
C. 206
D. 302
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a trust service chain in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. It is a defined set of WS-Trust security tokens, which together form a proof of trust and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
B. It is a defined set of WS-Security trust tokens, which together form a proof of claim and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
C. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances, collectively executed in a specific order,
with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the WS-Trust model.
D. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances which are always executed in the specific
order required by the authentication flow, with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the
WS-Trust model.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Custom Java mapping functions must be deployed into which IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
V6.2.2 directory?
A. Plug-ins
B. Add-ins
C. Mappings
D. Extensions
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement is true regarding event pages when creating a federation in IBM Tivoli Federated
Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. Event pages are tied to a protocol and not to a specific federation.
B. Event pages must be created (or copied from the defaults) and stored in the federation event directory.
C. Event pages can use the @FEDSTATUS@ macro to provide detailed Single Sign-On status
information to the user.
D. When creating event pages for a federation, it is important to append the federation name to the event
page filename so the TFIM runtime will use that instead of the default protocol event page.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which statement is true about the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Business Gateway?
A. Users can use several gateway protocols.
B. Users can access external Web services.
C. Users can create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
D. Users cannot create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A client has installed IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and is establishing a SAML
1.1 Single Sign-On (SSO) configuration with a service provider (SP). The client wants to provide
SP-initiated Federated SSO. How can this be accomplished?
A. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding identity
provider (IdP) login endpoint.
B. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters IDP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding IdP login
endpoint.
C. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, this can be simulated by using a link or
an HTTP 302 redirect to the IdP login endpoint with the query string parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and
TARGET to initiate the protocol.
D. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, and only an HTTP POST to the IdP can
be used to initiate the protocol, the SP must generate an HTTP 200 response containing a form with the
SP_PROVIDER_ID and target values which is self-posted to the IdP login endpoint.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which roles are typically defined in an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Single Sign-On
federation configuration?
A. Relying Party or Service Provider
B. Asserting Party or Service Provider
C. Identity Provider or Asserting Party
D. Identity Provider or Service Provider
Answer: D

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NO.14 When configuring WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
using the WebSEAL No ACLD profile, which configuration requirement(s) are relevant?
A. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured).
B. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured).
C. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
D. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is always required when deploying the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 runtime and
management service?
A. WebSEAL
B. IBM HTTP Server
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

IBM examen   C2150-575   C2150-575

NO.16 What does this XSL code do?
<xsl:template match-'@* | node()">
<xsl:copy>
<xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/>
</xsl:copy>
</xsl:template>
A. It makes a copy of the template transforms on the input document.
B. It performs a series of transforms on a copy of the input document.
C. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all attributes, but not elements.
D. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all elements, but not attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.17 When is IBM WebSphere Application Server required for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM)?
A. It is always required for TFIM.
B. When it is used as the point of contact.
C. When the Management Console GUI is used.
D. When Web Services Security Management is used
Answer: A

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NO.18 A company wants to establish a Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) relationship with a partner identity
provider to allow partner administrator access. This company provides services for credit card processing.
What is the most secure choice for the FSSO protocol?
A. OpenID using Associate Mode
B. SAML 2.0 using HTTP Redirect/POST bindings, signed response, and signed assertion
C. SAML 1.1 using a Browser/POST profile, signed response and assertion, and a narrow assertion
validity window of only a few seconds
D. SAML 2.0 using an HTTP-Artifact binding, signed response and assertion, an encrypted assertion, and
a narrow assertion validity window of only a few seconds
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which partner vouches for the identity of a user in a Single Sign-On federation?
A. Relying party
B. Attribute party
C. Service provider
D. Identity provider
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is XSLT?
A. A concatenative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules to subexpressions, producing a new output
document.
B. A declarative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
C. An imperative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
D. A automata-based language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which
typically takes an XML source document and applies template rules to transition element states,
producing a new output document.
Answer: B

IBM   C2150-575   C2150-575   C2150-575   C2150-575

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CAT-500 dernières questions d'examen certification CA et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: CAT-500
Nom d'Examen: CA (CA Process Automation r4.x Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Sue White is responsible for approving notebook upgrades. Sue is notified by email that she
needs to approve an upgrade request. When Sue logs into CA Process Automation and right clicks
the task, which menu options are available? (Choose two)
A. Take
B. Reply
C. Escalate
D. Approve
Answer: A,B

CA examen   CAT-500 examen   certification CAT-500

NO.2 You are exporting automation objects from a User Acceptance Testing (UAT) environment to a
production environment.
You should provide instructions for groups that will: (Choose two)
A. Invoke objects.
B. Maintain the environment.
C. Determine which processes can be split into subprocesses.
D. Verify that the solution works according to functional requirements.
Answer: A,B

CA   CAT-500   CAT-500 examen   CAT-500 examen

NO.3 Exit links from an And operator are activated only after:
A. Any entry link to the And operator has been activated.
B. All entry links to the And operator have been activated.
C. The first entry link to the And operator has been activated.
D. The first and second entry links to the And operator have been activated.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about manipulating XML data in CA Process Automation is TRUE?
A. CA Process Automation defines its own XPath query syntax.
B. The applyXPath operator can be used to extract data from an XML document.
C. CA Process Automation contains no system functions related to XML or XPath.
D. In a CA Process Automation operator, if data returned from a Simple Object Access Protocol
(SOAP) call is in XML format, you cannot retrieve the value of a specific XML element in this data.
Answer: B

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NO.5 During which process development phase do you typically create a runbook?
A. Requirements Analysis
B. Testing and Deployment
C. Design and Implementation
D. Production and Maintenance
Answer: A

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NO.6 When you configure host groups, which steps do you need to perform? (Choose three)
A. Lock the environment.
B. Associate the host group to at least one agent.
C. Specify the credentials to connect to the remote host using Secure Shell (SSH).
D. Create a trust relationship between the hosts in the group and a target remote host referenced in
the group.
E. Specify the touch point name that content designers will use as the target for operations directed
at the group.
Answer: A,B,C

CA   CAT-500   CAT-500   certification CAT-500

NO.7 The process you are designing requires parameters to be passed to a child process. You will
therefore need to edit the data initialization code of the Start Process operator. To pass the
parameters to the child process, which syntax should you use?
A. Process.x = Caller.x;
B. Caller.x = Process.x;
C. Process.x == Caller.x;
D. Process. x = Process. y;
Answer: A

CA   CAT-500   certification CAT-500   CAT-500

NO.8 You have successfully completed the Web Services Description Language (WSDL) wizard.
Now you need to select an input source for the Invoke SOAP Method operator. Which input source
is INVALID?
A. WSDL URL
B. In line text
C. Expression
D. Preformatted Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) file
Answer: A

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BICSI RCDD, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: RCDD
Nom d'Examen: BICSI (Registered Communications Distribution Designer )
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair
Answer: D

BICSI   RCDD examen   RCDD

NO.2 NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone.
Answer: A

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NO.3 ANSI/TIA/EIA-758 is the standard for which of the following?
A. Customer-Owned Outside Plant Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
B. Technical Specifications for 100 Ohm Screened Twisted Pair Cabling.
C. Propagation Delay and Delay Skew Specifications for 100-Ohm 4-Pair Cable.
D. Residential Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is the Standard for the Installation of Lightning Protection
Systems?
A. NFPA-780
B. NFPA-70
C. NFPA-72
D. NFPA-75
Answer: A

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NO.5 The ability of a device, equipment, or system to perform without degradation in the
presence of an electromagnetic disturbance is called what?
A. Electromagnetic immunity.
B. Electromagnetic compatibility.
C. Electromagnetic induction.
D. Electromagnetic disturbance.
Answer: A

BICSI examen   RCDD   certification RCDD   RCDD

NO.6 For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a
4-pair 100 ohm UTP or ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in
Answer: B

BICSI examen   RCDD   certification RCDD   RCDD examen   RCDD

NO.7 A product is listed after it successfully completes a series of which of the following
test?
A. Mechanical
B. Regulatory codes
C. Electrical
D. Thermal
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956
Answer: A

BICSI   RCDD   certification RCDD   certification RCDD

NO.9 In an "underfloor duct system", the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to
the feeder ducts.
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

BICSI examen   RCDD   RCDD examen   RCDD   RCDD examen

NO.10 A "wye" is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

BICSI   RCDD   RCDD   RCDD examen

NO.11 Which of the following is the standard for "Recommended Practice for Installation
Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for
Stationary Applications"?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Answer: D

certification BICSI   RCDD   RCDD   certification RCDD

NO.12 Which of the following should be used as a guideline for estimating space
requirements of optical fiber and coaxial cable cross-connections in a TR?
A. 3 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
B. 2 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
C. 4 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
D. 1 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
Answer: B

BICSI examen   RCDD   RCDD examen   RCDD   RCDD

NO.13 What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one
individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.
Answer: A

BICSI examen   RCDD   RCDD

NO.14 The CEC is revised every four years.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

BICSI   RCDD examen   certification RCDD   RCDD   RCDD   RCDD

NO.15 Between the late 60's and until 1984, what was the service that was to help architects
and engineers better design and implement pathways and spaces in commercial
buildings for telephone communications?
A. BICS
B. AT&T
C. CREDFACS
D. GTE
E. BICSI
Answer: A

BICSI   RCDD examen   RCDD examen   RCDD

NO.16 ________is the total opposition (resistance, capacitance, and inductance) a circuit,
cable, or component offers to the flow of alternating current.
A unit of measure expressed in ohms.
Answer: Impedance

certification BICSI   RCDD   RCDD   RCDD   RCDD   RCDD

NO.17 Distribution cable is that part of the loop that connects the customer location to the
customer feeder cable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

BICSI   RCDD examen   RCDD   certification RCDD

NO.18 In buildings that will contain the telecommunications systems, NEC requirements
address the adequate electrical environment for reliable and error-free operation of
the installed equipment.
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

BICSI   RCDD   certification RCDD

NO.19 Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 9L0-509
Nom d'Examen: Apple (Server Essentials 10.5)
Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

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NO.1 You are setting up a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to store the home folders for 10 users. The
computer has 510 GB of free space on the volume where the home folders reside. Which of these
procedures will ensure that each user has an equal amount of storage space, yet leave at least 10 GB
free?
A. In AFP service in Server Admin, select Limit disk usage to, and set the value to 50 GB.
B. In AFP service in Server Admin, select Limit disk usage to, and set the value to 500 GB.
C. In Workgroup Manager, in the Home pane for each user account, set the Disk Quota to 50 GB.
D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Quota pane for a group containing all of the users, set the Limit to 50
GB.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which utility should you use on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer to create resources, such as rooms and
projectors, in an LDAP directory so that those resources can be scheduled by iCal service users?
A. Directory
B. Address Book
C. Directory Utility
D. Directory Access
Answer: A

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NO.3 A MacBook computer running Mac OS X v10.5 was formerly managed, but its managed preferences
have been disabled on the server. Still, the user is unable to change some preferences on the MacBook.
Which statement presents a valid method for restoring the users access to these preferences?
A. Delete the /Library/Managed Preferences/ folder.
B. Delete the MCX attributes from the user records in the NetInfo database.
C. Deselect the Managed Accounts option in the Services pane of Directory Utility.
D. Deselect the Managed Accounts option in the Accounts pane of System Preferences.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which utility can you use to display the status of ticket-granting tickets on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer?
A. Kerberos
B. Server Admin
C. KerberosAgent
D. Keychain Access
E. Directory Utility
F. Certificate Assistant
Answer: A

Apple   9L0-509   9L0-509   9L0-509   certification 9L0-509

NO.5 Review the image, and then answer the question below.
You have managed the Dock preferences to define where on the computer screen the Dock will appear
for these four accounts: Lab (a computer group), Science1 (a computer in the Lab computer group),
Teachers (a workgroup), and John (a member of the Teachers workgroup). When John logs in on the
Science1 computer, where on the computer screen does the Dock appear?
A. bottom of the screen
B. left side of the screen
C. right side of the screen
D. John will be prompted to choose whether his user preferences or the Teachers workgroup preferences
should be used. The Dock will appear at the location of his choice.
Answer: C

Apple   certification 9L0-509   certification 9L0-509

NO.6 Your company has a set of site-licensed fonts in a folder named Fonts, on the share point, Resources,
on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You are configuring the Resources share point so that these
fonts will be automatically accessible by all your Mac OS X users. After you have enabled the Automount
option for the Resources share point, how should you configure the share point in the automount
configuration sheet?
A. Choose User home folders.
B. Choose Shared Library folder.
C. Choose Shared Applications folder.
D. Choose Custom mount path and enter ~/Library/Fonts for the path.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have enabled AFP service on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You configured the
authentication method as Any. The server will attempt to authenticate file service users using which
authentication methods, and in what order?
A. (1) Kerberos; (2) SSH
B. (1) Standard; (2) Kerberos
C. (1) Kerberos; (2) Standard
D. (1) SSH; (2) Standard; (3) Kerberos
E. (1) Standard; (2) Kerberos; (3) SSH
Answer: C

Apple   9L0-509 examen   9L0-509

NO.8 Which protocol does the iChat service in Mac OS X Server v10.5 use to send messages?
A. IRC (Internet Relay Chat)
B. SMP (Symmetric Messaging Protocol)
C. AIMP (AOL Instant Messaging Protocol)
D. XMPP (Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol)
Answer: D

Apple   9L0-509 examen   9L0-509 examen   9L0-509

NO.9 What is the maximum number of replicas of one Open Directory master that can be used in a Mac OS
X Server v10.5 Open Directory infrastructure?
A. 31
B. 64
C. 256
D. 1024
E. 1056
Answer: E

Apple examen   9L0-509   9L0-509   9L0-509 examen

NO.10 Which of these is a zone that is configurable from Server Admin?
A. Cache
B. Master
C. Pointer
D. Forward
Answer: B

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L'avènement de la certification Apple pratique d'examen 9L0-607 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 9L0-607
Nom d'Examen: Apple (System Administration Using Mac)
Questions et réponses: 86 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button and study the network diagram, then answer the question below. You
administer the server with IP addresses 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.0.11. You have configured its two
network interfaces in Network Preferences. Which TWO additional steps must you take on your
server to ensure that the workstation at 10.1.1.2 can communicate with the server at 10.1.0.1, even
if the server at 10.1.1.1 is restarted? (Choose TWO.)
A.Enable IP forwarding with sysctl.
B.Add a static route for network 10.1.0/24.
C.Add a static route for network 10.1.1/24.
D.Enable IP forwarding from Server Admin.
E.Set the IPFORWARDING flag in /etc/hostconfig to -YES-.
Correct:A E

certification Apple   9L0-607 examen   9L0-607   9L0-607

NO.2 You are configuring Mac OS X Server to authorize users stored on an Active Directory server.
You need to ________ and ________. (Choose TWO.)
A.generate and install keytabs
B.configure the Active Directory plug-in
C.use slurpd to import Active Directory users to your local LDAP database
D.configure Open Directory to emulate Active Directory properties in the LDAPv3 database
E.use Workgroup Manager to include properties required by Open Directory in the Active Directory
database
Correct:A B

certification Apple   9L0-607 examen   9L0-607   9L0-607

NO.3 Server Monitor does NOT provide status information for which Xserve component?
A.blower
B.hard drive
C.power supply
D.fibre channel link
Correct:D

certification Apple   9L0-607 examen   9L0-607   9L0-607

NO.4 Which are valid SMTP commands that you might use in a Telnet session when testing your mail
server? (Choose all that apply.)
A.mail from:
B.mail to:
C.rcpt from:
D.rcpt to:
E.relay from:
F.relay to:
Correct:A D

certification Apple   9L0-607 examen   9L0-607   9L0-607

NO.5 On Mac OS X Server 10.3, which feature in amd represents an improvement over automount?
A.graphical user interface
B.support of AFP and NFS
C.integration with directory services
D.support of industry-standard mount maps
Correct:D

certification Apple   9L0-607 examen   9L0-607   9L0-607

Nous assurons seulement le succès de test certification, mais encore la mise à jour est gratuite pour vous. Si vous ne pouvez pas passer le test, votre argent sera 100% rendu. Toutefois, cette possibilité n'est presque pas de se produire. Vous pouvez tout d'abord télécharger le démo gratuit pour prendre un essai.