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Code d'Examen: HP0-D17
Nom d'Examen: HP (Architecting HP Cloud Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S13
Nom d'Examen: HP ( HP BladeSystem Class Solutions I)
Questions et réponses: 151 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-Y16
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 Which role-based Virtual Connect Manager access enables you to create, edit, and delete Virtual
Connect profiles?
A. Server
B. Admin
C. Storage
D. Domain
E. Networking
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
In a four-fan configuration, where must these fans be installed?
A. bays 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. bays 1, 2, 3, and 5
C. bays 2, 4, 5, and 6
D. bays 3, 4, 5, and 6
Answer: C

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NO.3 To utilize all four Ethernet ports on the NC325m PCIe Quad-Port 1Gb Server Adapter, which
mezzanine position must you avoid?
A. mezzanine position 1 in full-height server blades
B. mezzanine position 2 in full-height server blades
C. mezzanine position 3 in full-height server blades
D. mezzanine position 1 in half-height server blades
E. mezzanine position 2 in half-height server blades
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are the features of the HP Customer Self-Repair program? (Select three.)
A. HP ships the replacement part directly to the customer.
B. The customer is responsible for replacing the faulty part.
C. HP ships the replacement part to an authorized partner closest to the customer.
D. The customer diagnoses the issue and determines whether a replacement part is required.
E. The program is available for HP products that are under warranty but not covered by a service
contract.
F. An HP support specialist diagnoses the problem and determines whether a replacement part is
necessary.
Answer: ABF

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NO.5 Which statements describe the function of the Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. It enables automated provisioning of the HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades.
B. It provides I2C and ICMB management interfaces to all HP BladeSystem c-Class components.
C. It consolidates 16 iLO 2 ports in the c7000 enclosure and 8 iLO 2 ports in the c3000 enclosure.
D. It creates a LAN-based or SAN-based abstraction layer between the server blades and the external
LAN/SAN.
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Which statements correctly describe the integrated management functionality of HP SIM and HP
BladeSystem c-Class environments? (Select three.)
A. The redundant Onboard Administrator module cannot automatically take over control of the enclosure
until the primary Onboard Administrator module fails.
B. For added security, you must specify your user name and password when accessing the server blade
iLOs from the Onboard Administrator GUI.
C. The Onboard Administrator includes status information from the server blade agents and therefore
displays the same server blade status in its GUI as HP SIM.
D. HP SIM reports the Onboard Administrator modules, server blades, and server blade iLOs separately
because each has its own IP address and its own instrumentation.
E. Both the primary and redundant Onboard Administrator modules share the same IP address, thereby
enabling transparent failover for HP SIM and other management clients.
F. You can change which Onboard Administrator module is active and which is standby by logging in to
the standby Onboard Administrator module user interface and changing its setting.
Answer: ADF

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NO.7 How can the Onboard Administrator show a health status different from the status displayed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)? (Select two.)
A. The passive Onboard Administrator might have been activated through the user interface without
notifying HP SIM.
B. The active Onboard Administrator status does not include information from the agents running on the
server blades.
C. The active Onboard Administrator might indicate a failure that HP SIM displays in the event log rather
than in the health status.
D. The passive Onboard Administrator does not send a trap to HP SIM indicating a change of state when
it activates after a failure.
E. Because of an Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) configuration error, iLO might have indicated different health
states to the Onboard Administrator and to HP SIM.
Answer: BC

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NO.8 You are configuring the MSA1000 storage solution to boot from a SAN. Although there are several
physical drives reported in the ACU graphical user interface, the Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
link is missing. Why?
A. The ACU has detected multiple paths from the host.
B. The MSA1000 does not have any logical drives defined.
C. An incorrect MSA1000 device driver is loaded in the host server.
D. The host server is not running the HP Insight Agents, or these agents are outdated.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y16
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-J28
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks Virtual Library Systems)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-J24
Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP Insight Dynamics - VSE Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 46 Q&As

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NO.1 Given a drive with the following features:
optical servo tracking
magneto-resistive cluster heads
fewer roller guides than previous generation drive
Which type of drive correctly matches the description?
A.AIT
B.DAT
C.SDLT
D.LTO
Answer: C

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NO.2 Given the following third-party copy sequence:
Step 1 Server initiates backup by sending list of blocks to be backed up to the third-party device.
Step 2 Third-party device issues commands to the external disk subsystem.
Step 3
Step 4External disk subsystem sends data to tape library.
Which action is taken in Step 3?
A.Fibre Channel loop performs LIP.
B.Server IP address is changed.
C.Snapshot is taken.
D.Server backup agent is stopped.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the benefit of having an SDLT tape drive that uses a linear recording technology where the tape
media is moved past the stationary read/write heads?
A.Data stripes that are recorded in vertical format over constant tape media speed provide reliable
recording.
B.Higher data density is recorded in the media in diagonal stripes format.
C.It is more reliable due to fewer moving parts and longer lifespan for the tape media.
D.A single media roller provides better tape tension during reading or writing.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are required to cascade 2 units of HP B-Series 8Gb/s SAN switches using a 50/125 micron LC-LC
fiber optic cable. The remote SAN switch is connected to an MSL Tape Library. What is the maximum
cable length possible?
A.21 meters
B.150 meters
C.300 meters
D.500 meters
Answer: B

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NO.5 Given the following backup tape rotation scheme:
Incremental backup daily from Monday to Friday using 1 tape
Full backup every Saturday using 1 tape
Tape rotation rule: GFS scheme
Tape retention rule: Son tape overwrites weekly; Father tape only used every Saturday
A month is calculated as 5 Saturdays.
How many tapes are required to run one month of backups?
A.6
B.11
C.12
D.15
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which HP StorageWorks systems can use zero downtime backup technology and remote replications
solutions? (Select two.)
A.VLS Series
B.EML Series
C.XP Series
D.MSA2000 Series
E.EVA Series
Answer: CE

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NO.7 What is a benefit of a disk-to-disk-to-tape backup configuration in an Enterprise Backup Solution?
A.The backup data are copied to a host-managed, low-cost disk to facilitate restores and enable short
term archival storage.
B.Because the speed of staging disks is much higher than the tape speed, the window for
disk-to-disk-to-tape backup shrinks dramatically.
C.All file transfers are controlled by the storage system software, and transfer to tape occurs through
servers that send the data.
D.The backup application backs up the primary disk data to the staging disk, allowing for quick restores of
single files.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which elements form the backup and restore basics? (Select four.)
A.backup strategies
B.tape rotation scheme
C.journal replication
D.agents selection
E.type of data to backup
F.remote replication
G.correct tape devices
Answer: ABEG

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NO.9 Which two-stage backup configuration would you recommend to SMB customers who want a solution
that is easy to install and manage?
A.Mezzanine Backup Solution
B.VLS1000i with MSL2024 Tape Libraries
C.MSA2000fc with MSL2048 Tape Libraries
D.D2D Backup System
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are advantages of using HP StorageWorks D2D Backup Systems over traditional backup that
uses tape media? (Select two.)
A.It provides data protection.
B.It is a scalable Enterprise SAN solution.
C.It enables non-disruptive scalability using Capacity on Demand.
D.It is the safest way to store data for the long term.
E.It provides online access to backup data.
Answer: AE

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HP HP0-Y16 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y16
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 Which action can help you troubleshoot a policy in realtime from PCM?
A. Port Mirror
B. Notify (Email)
C. Message Dialog
D. Traffic Sampling
Answer: C

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NO.2 What should you do to set up your network infrastructure for remote mirroring?
A. Enable jumbo frames.
B. Enable frame fragmentation.
C. Raise the maximum transmit unit (MTU).
D. Reserve uplink ports for the mirroring session.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what do you know about alerts on the 10.1.1.1 device over the
last five hours? (Note: The orange color corresponds with Major severity.)
A. The device has received only Major alerts.
B. The majority of alerts on the device are Major alerts.
C. The highest severity for an alert on this device is Major.
D. The most recent alert received on the device was a Major alert.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which tab is added to PCM+ when you install ProCurve NIM?
A. Policy Events
B. Security Audit
C. Event Browser
D. Security Activity
Answer: D

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NO.5 By default, which NBAD event will trigger traffic sampling on a port?
A. Duplicate IP
B. Virus Throttle
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: D

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NO.6 Your company's regulatory compliance group has asked you for a record of changes to the Policy
Manager policies. Which report should you generate?
A. Security Audit
B. Actions by Policy
C. Executed Policies
D. Automation (Policy) History
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring a Quarantine VLAN action.
Which area in the exhibit displays settings that allow ProCurve NIM to always place the offender in the
Quarantine VLAN?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Answer: D

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NO.8 How does ProCurve NIM determine the severity level for a security alert?
A. from the violation count for the associated event
B. from the event, and the severity cannot be overridden
C. from the event, unless overridden by the alert configuration
D. from the event for trap events and from the alert configuration for other events
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a feature of anomaly-based threat detection but not signature-based threat detection?
A. detecting worms
B. detecting DoS attacks
C. detecting protocol anomalies
D. detecting undocumented attacks
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
What are reasons to configure the policy settings shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. You want the policy to respond to threats from offenders within this group.
B. You want ProCurve NIM to apply the policy for threats detected in this group.
C. You have set the policy to a source group, so you must set the target group to match.
D. You want to enable dynamic local port mirroring on set ports, which compose this group.
E. The policy action is MAC Lockout, and you want to lock the offender out of the entire group.
Answer: DE

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NO.11 A network already has an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) that is installed between a group of
servers and the rest of the network. Which benefits does ProCurve NIM add in a NIM + IPS deployment?
(Select two.)
A. deep packet inspection
B. signature-based detection
C. remediation of infected endpoints
D. protection for other resources throughout the network
E. applies actions closer to the point of origin of the attack
Answer: DE

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NO.12 What might indicate that the sensitivity for IP fanout has been set too high?
A. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for almost every switch.
B. Although you do not see IP Fanout events, the IP Fanout alert triggers.
C. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for one switch but not others.
D. There are no IP Fanout events for days although you have configured an IP Fanout alert.
Answer: A

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NO.13 When should the unified NIM + IDS deployment option be used?
A. to take immediate action to protect key resources and also track threats to the source
B. to add threat protection to the features of ProCurve NIM, which include only threat detection
C. to allow ProCurve NIM to mirror suspicious traffic to an external device for additional analysis
D. to protect against threats from wireless devices, which ProCurve NIM is not able to do on its own
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is a reason to create a custom group for a server zone and set that group as the source for a NIM
policy?
A. Servers handle more mission-critical traffic, so you set less drastic actions.
B. Servers trigger more false positives, so you set the NBAD sensitivities lower.
C. Threats are targeted to servers at all times, so you set the policy to any time.
D. Threats that are targeted to servers are more serious, so you set harsher actions.
Answer: A

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NO.15 How do you configure PCM+ to generate periodic reports?
A. Select the Reports button in the global toolbar.
B. Enable the periodic reports setting in PCM+ Preferences.
C. Configure the schedule in the appropriate Reports Wizard.
D. Create policies with schedule-driven alerts and report actions.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which misconfiguration on PCM+ causes ProCurve NIM to fail to detect any anomalies in traffic?
A. the wrong sFlow version
B. an incorrect operator password
C. an incorrect manager password
D. an incorrect SNMP community name
Answer: D

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NO.17 You want to set up different external alerts based on the specific type of threat. Which settings can
help you accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. Trap ID
B. Severity
C. Description
D. Anomaly ID
E. Violation Count
Answer: AC

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NO.18 ProCurve NIM was registering few TCP/UDP Fanout events. You have raised the sensitivity, and
many false positive TCP/UDP Fanout events are now triggered throughout the network. What should you
do next? (Select two.)
A. Lower the sensitivity to the previous level.
B. Remove the TCP/UDP alert from all policies.
C. Plan and create a Policy Manager policy to deal with false positive events.
D. Exclude the devices triggering the false positive events from the TCP/UDP fanout.
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Which statement is true about the role that events play in ProCurve NIM?
A. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding alert.
B. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding policy.
C. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding alert.
D. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding policy.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
Which port in the exhibit should you select in PCM+ and configure as the mirror destination?
A. 1
B. A6
C. X0
D. B16
E. 25-48
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which alert can be triggered by SNMP traps sent by ProCurve switches?
A. default External
B. default IP Fanout
C. default IP Spoofing
D. default Virus Throttle
E. default ProCurve SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which threat mitigation action is supported on ProCurve wireless devices?
A. Port Disable
B. MAC Lockout
C. Port Rate Limit
D. Quarantine VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which statement is true about setting up an action for dynamic remote mirroring?
A. You should configure the mirror source before configuring the action.
B. You should configure the mirror destination before configuring the action.
C. You configure both the mirror source and destination as part of configuring the action.
D. You should configure both the mirror source and destination before configuring the action.
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which events can be signs of an unauthorized port scan? (Select two.)
A. Port Anomaly
B. DNS Tunneling
C. TCP/UDP Fanout
D. UDP Protocol Anomaly
E. TCP Protocol Anomaly
Answer: CE

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NO.25 You want to display and print a list of all events related to the Policy Manager. What should you do?
A. From the Reports menu, select the Policy Events report.
B. In Interconnect Devices, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
C. From the Reports menu, select the Events report; filter for Policy Manager in the Report Wizard.
D. In Network Management Home, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
Answer: D

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NO.26 From which NBAD event should you often exclude your servers?
A. DNS Tunneling
B. TCP/UDP Fanout
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.27 What must you do to configure a Port Rate Limit action?
A. Set the rate limit as a percentage.
B. Set the rate limit as a QoS priority value.
C. Set the rate limit as an absolute value in Kbps.
D. Enable the limit, leaving the rate to be determined by the switch configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which features are provided in a ProCurve NIM standalone deployment? (Select two.)
A. threat mitigation without the aid of PCM+
B. resetting of TCP sessions when threats are detected
C. signature-based detection of worms and other attacks
D. applying mitigation actions near the source of the threat
E. application of different policies based on the threat's place of origin
Answer: DE

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NO.29 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action of ProCurve NIM?
A. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
B. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: B

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NO.30 How does a ProCurve Network Immunity Solution protect a network?
A. It deals with threats from authorized users.
B. It stops unauthorized users from connecting.
C. It customizes users' rights based on their identity.
D. It filters Web content and email while searching for viruses.
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 Which misconfiguration on PCM+ causes ProCurve NIM to fail to detect any anomalies in traffic?
A. the wrong sFlow version
B. an incorrect operator password
C. an incorrect manager password
D. an incorrect SNMP community name
Answer: D

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NO.2 What should you do to set up your network infrastructure for remote mirroring?
A. Enable jumbo frames.
B. Enable frame fragmentation.
C. Raise the maximum transmit unit (MTU).
D. Reserve uplink ports for the mirroring session.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action of ProCurve NIM?
A. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
B. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which alert can be triggered by SNMP traps sent by ProCurve switches?
A. default External
B. default IP Fanout
C. default IP Spoofing
D. default Virus Throttle
E. default ProCurve SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which port in the exhibit should you select in PCM+ and configure as the mirror destination?
A. 1
B. A6
C. X0
D. B16
E. 25-48
Answer: B

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NO.6 A network already has an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) that is installed between a group of
servers and the rest of the network. Which benefits does ProCurve NIM add in a NIM + IPS deployment?
(Select two.)
A. deep packet inspection
B. signature-based detection
C. remediation of infected endpoints
D. protection for other resources throughout the network
E. applies actions closer to the point of origin of the attack
Answer: DE

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NO.7 Which threat mitigation action is supported on ProCurve wireless devices?
A. Port Disable
B. MAC Lockout
C. Port Rate Limit
D. Quarantine VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.8 You want to display and print a list of all events related to the Policy Manager. What should you do?
A. From the Reports menu, select the Policy Events report.
B. In Interconnect Devices, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
C. From the Reports menu, select the Events report; filter for Policy Manager in the Report Wizard.
D. In Network Management Home, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
Answer: D

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NO.9 How do you configure PCM+ to generate periodic reports?
A. Select the Reports button in the global toolbar.
B. Enable the periodic reports setting in PCM+ Preferences.
C. Configure the schedule in the appropriate Reports Wizard.
D. Create policies with schedule-driven alerts and report actions.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a reason to create a custom group for a server zone and set that group as the source for a NIM
policy?
A. Servers handle more mission-critical traffic, so you set less drastic actions.
B. Servers trigger more false positives, so you set the NBAD sensitivities lower.
C. Threats are targeted to servers at all times, so you set the policy to any time.
D. Threats that are targeted to servers are more serious, so you set harsher actions.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which statement is true about setting up an action for dynamic remote mirroring?
A. You should configure the mirror source before configuring the action.
B. You should configure the mirror destination before configuring the action.
C. You configure both the mirror source and destination as part of configuring the action.
D. You should configure both the mirror source and destination before configuring the action.
Answer: B

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NO.12 ProCurve NIM was registering few TCP/UDP Fanout events. You have raised the sensitivity, and
many false positive TCP/UDP Fanout events are now triggered throughout the network. What should you
do next? (Select two.)
A. Lower the sensitivity to the previous level.
B. Remove the TCP/UDP alert from all policies.
C. Plan and create a Policy Manager policy to deal with false positive events.
D. Exclude the devices triggering the false positive events from the TCP/UDP fanout.
Answer: AD

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NO.13 Which statement is true about the role that events play in ProCurve NIM?
A. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding alert.
B. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding policy.
C. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding alert.
D. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding policy.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
What are reasons to configure the policy settings shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. You want the policy to respond to threats from offenders within this group.
B. You want ProCurve NIM to apply the policy for threats detected in this group.
C. You have set the policy to a source group, so you must set the target group to match.
D. You want to enable dynamic local port mirroring on set ports, which compose this group.
E. The policy action is MAC Lockout, and you want to lock the offender out of the entire group.
Answer: DE

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NO.15 You want to set up different external alerts based on the specific type of threat. Which settings can
help you accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. Trap ID
B. Severity
C. Description
D. Anomaly ID
E. Violation Count
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring a Quarantine VLAN action.
Which area in the exhibit displays settings that allow ProCurve NIM to always place the offender in the
Quarantine VLAN?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Answer: D

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what do you know about alerts on the 10.1.1.1 device over the
last five hours? (Note: The orange color corresponds with Major severity.)
A. The device has received only Major alerts.
B. The majority of alerts on the device are Major alerts.
C. The highest severity for an alert on this device is Major.
D. The most recent alert received on the device was a Major alert.
Answer: C

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NO.18 How does a ProCurve Network Immunity Solution protect a network?
A. It deals with threats from authorized users.
B. It stops unauthorized users from connecting.
C. It customizes users' rights based on their identity.
D. It filters Web content and email while searching for viruses.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which events can be signs of an unauthorized port scan? (Select two.)
A. Port Anomaly
B. DNS Tunneling
C. TCP/UDP Fanout
D. UDP Protocol Anomaly
E. TCP Protocol Anomaly
Answer: CE

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NO.20 Which action can help you troubleshoot a policy in realtime from PCM?
A. Port Mirror
B. Notify (Email)
C. Message Dialog
D. Traffic Sampling
Answer: C

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NO.21 Your company's regulatory compliance group has asked you for a record of changes to the Policy
Manager policies. Which report should you generate?
A. Security Audit
B. Actions by Policy
C. Executed Policies
D. Automation (Policy) History
Answer: C

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NO.22 How does ProCurve NIM determine the severity level for a security alert?
A. from the violation count for the associated event
B. from the event, and the severity cannot be overridden
C. from the event, unless overridden by the alert configuration
D. from the event for trap events and from the alert configuration for other events
Answer: C

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NO.23 What must you do to configure a Port Rate Limit action?
A. Set the rate limit as a percentage.
B. Set the rate limit as a QoS priority value.
C. Set the rate limit as an absolute value in Kbps.
D. Enable the limit, leaving the rate to be determined by the switch configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.24 From which NBAD event should you often exclude your servers?
A. DNS Tunneling
B. TCP/UDP Fanout
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.25 What is a feature of anomaly-based threat detection but not signature-based threat detection?
A. detecting worms
B. detecting DoS attacks
C. detecting protocol anomalies
D. detecting undocumented attacks
Answer: D

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NO.26 By default, which NBAD event will trigger traffic sampling on a port?
A. Duplicate IP
B. Virus Throttle
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: D

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NO.27 What might indicate that the sensitivity for IP fanout has been set too high?
A. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for almost every switch.
B. Although you do not see IP Fanout events, the IP Fanout alert triggers.
C. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for one switch but not others.
D. There are no IP Fanout events for days although you have configured an IP Fanout alert.
Answer: A

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NO.28 When should the unified NIM + IDS deployment option be used?
A. to take immediate action to protect key resources and also track threats to the source
B. to add threat protection to the features of ProCurve NIM, which include only threat detection
C. to allow ProCurve NIM to mirror suspicious traffic to an external device for additional analysis
D. to protect against threats from wireless devices, which ProCurve NIM is not able to do on its own
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which tab is added to PCM+ when you install ProCurve NIM?
A. Policy Events
B. Security Audit
C. Event Browser
D. Security Activity
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which features are provided in a ProCurve NIM standalone deployment? (Select two.)
A. threat mitigation without the aid of PCM+
B. resetting of TCP sessions when threats are detected
C. signature-based detection of worms and other attacks
D. applying mitigation actions near the source of the threat
E. application of different policies based on the threat's place of origin
Answer: DE

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